Like most of the readings found amongst the Norton Anthology book. I was overwhelmed with an abundance of questions upon my shutdown of Paradise Lost. Essentially most of my questions surrounded John Miltons unique stylistic approach towards his epic poem. His deviations from the spotless Greek and Latin standards of poetic writing which he alluded to in his cornerst iodin baffled me. What point was Milton attempting to convey by diverging from the classical conventions? The reason being that I ask this question is because Milton starts azoic on in his poem by having the reader empathize to a certain degree with the obvious antagonist: Satan. none of the epic poems which he alluded to at the beginning of his tale of all succession utilized such(prenominal) an approach, nor did they ever place such an strain on religious mythology. In addition, if one were to analyze the time period in which the story was written.
Due to the growing lick of Christianity in England and societys preconceived notions towards the matter, it was unprecedented for an person in the 1600s to portray Satan as a hero or war victim. With such odds sonsie against him, why did Milton take such a risk? The answers allow most likely reveal themselves one way or another in the other chapters to come, however, that should not impede one from making their own theories on the matter. Recounting Miltons allusions to earlyish Greek and Latin works of epic poetry, one must wonder what he was attempting to do by making such statements. Personally, I hypothesize that Milton was attempting to establish a correlative railroad tie between his epic poem and those of early Greek and...If you indigence to get a full essay, order it on our website: Orderessay
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